Ok, allow me to clarify because this is going nowhere. The issue reported was a severely damaged sidewalk that caused my wife to almost trip and fall.

The expected outcome is to have this sidewalk repaired so nobody else trips and falls.

The sidewalk is city property, is it not? So why would you be issuing the violation to the city?

Or are you lying when you say "a violation was issued"; just so you can close and ignore the issue? Because "a violation was issued" makes absolutely no sense for city owned property.